Okay, I have a question for lawyers on the board, so hopefully one of you guys can help me out. (I am not trying to start debate, but I have an honest question concerning a law).
Could someone explain the origin of where a spouse does not have to (or cannot, correct me please) testify against her husband. I have been told that this law goes further than American History, is it an American Law. Or is it just a recognized practice of the courts (like Parlementary Procedure).
If it is American Law, what is the Constitutionality of it fall under?
There may be follow up questions, but thank you in advance. (I am having a debate with someone on my floor, and he almost has me cornered).
Thanks,
Steve