SluSignGuy Posted February 27, 2004 Share Posted February 27, 2004 Okay, I have a question for lawyers on the board, so hopefully one of you guys can help me out. (I am not trying to start debate, but I have an honest question concerning a law). Could someone explain the origin of where a spouse does not have to (or cannot, correct me please) testify against her husband. I have been told that this law goes further than American History, is it an American Law. Or is it just a recognized practice of the courts (like Parlementary Procedure). If it is American Law, what is the Constitutionality of it fall under? There may be follow up questions, but thank you in advance. (I am having a debate with someone on my floor, and he almost has me cornered). Thanks, Steve Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billiken_roy Posted February 27, 2004 Share Posted February 27, 2004 steve go to the cusa-talk.com board and pm gruehls. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gruehls Posted February 27, 2004 Share Posted February 27, 2004 this will be longer than you want, but answers about any question you might have on the testimonial privilege afforded spouses: http://www.law.harvard.edu/publications/ev...ses/trammel.htm by the way, i am wearing my BILLIKENS.COM shirt as i type this. but don't tell anyone. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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